Passage: 2 Corinthians 9:6-11

1.  Verse 8 is a conditional promise, not an absolute one.  What then is the “flip side” of verse 8?

2.  Discuss the differences between the giving described in verse 7 and the mandatory giving of the Old Testament.  Why do you think it changed?

3.  Verse 9 says “He hath dispersed abroad; he hath given to the poor: his righteousness remaineth for ever. ” (referring to a righteous man). Seeing this example of righteousness, WHY would a Christian make excuses to NOT GIVE liberally to the God Who gave everything to us? See Psalm 112:9

NOTE: Question 3 was incorrect. “HE” refers to a righteous man (as found in Psalm 112) and not God as I had initially stated.

 4.  Frequently, the promise of verse 8 is taken and applied as a solution to worldly problems, but it doesn’t really fit there so well once you put it back into the context of the passage.  What is the context of this passage and thus the truest application of the promise?

5.  Application:  Consider for a moment the grace described in verse 8.  Seeing how unlimited and overwhelming this grace truly is, what should we expect about the thanksgiving mentioned in verse 11?  Does our thanksgiving today measure up?

6.  Application:  Verse 6 illustrates a point that the secular business world knows all too well and fully embraces.  What are some ways we could do more to abundantly sow God’s gospel?

 

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